Section I : Quantitative Ability |
| 1. |
Which of the following is/are true?
(i) (a, a), (-a, -a) and (√3a, -√3a) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
(ii) (0, -2), (3, 1), (0, 4) and (-3, 1) are the vertices of a square.
(iii) (0, -1), (-2, 3), (6, 8) and (8, 3) are the vertices of a rectangle. |
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(a) only (i) |
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(b) (i) & (iii) |
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(c) (i) & (ii) |
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(d) None of these |
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| 2. |
In a survey of a town, it was found that 65% of the people surveyed watched the news on television, 40% read a newspaper, and 25% read a newspaper and watched the news on television. What percent of the people surveyed neither watched TV nor read a newspaper? |
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(a) 0% |
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(b) 5% |
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(c) 15% |
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(d) 20 % |
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| 3. |
A screwdriver and a hammer cost the same. If the price of a screwdriver increases by 5% and that of the hammer increases by 3%, how much percent more will it cost to buy 3 screwdrivers and 3 hammers? |
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(a) 4% |
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(b) 5% |
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(c) 8% |
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(d) 24% |
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| 4. |
If a, b, c are in AP, then eax + k, ebx + k, ecx + k, are in |
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(a) AP |
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(b) GP |
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(c) HP |
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(d) None of these |
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| 5. |
What is the minimum integral value of p for which the division 44p/121 leaves no remainder? |
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(a) 11 |
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(b) 3 |
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(c) 7 |
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(d) 22 |
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| 6. |
At noon, ship A starts from a point P towards a point Q and at 1:00 PM ship B starts from Q towards P. If ship A is expected to complete the voyage in 6 hours and ship B is moving at a speed 2/3 of that of ship A, at what time are the two ships expected to meet one another? |
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(a) 4 PM |
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(b) 4:30 PM |
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(c) 3 PM |
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(d) 2:30 PM |
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| 7. |
Ram, Shiv and Ganesh assemble for a contributory party. Ram brings 3 apples while Shiv brings 5. Since Ganesh did not have any apples, he contributed Rs 8. How many rupees should Ram and Shiv respectively get, assuming each of the three consumes an equal portion of the apples? |
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(a) 1, 7 |
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(b) 3, 5 |
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(c) 5, 3 |
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(d) 2, 6 |
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| 8. |
In how many ways can 10 people be seated around a round table, making sure that a particular couple always stays together? |
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(a) 8 |
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(b) 9! |
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(c) 2*(9!) |
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(d) 2*(8!) |
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| 9. |
What is the measure of the angle BOC, if angle ABO = 25° and angle ACO = 35°, and O is the centre of the circle?
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 |
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(a) 135° |
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(b) 120° |
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(c) 90° |
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(d) 150° |
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| 10. |
What is the area of the circle inscribed within the parallelogram ABCD? (Given that B and C are the centres of the two bigger circles with radius 8 cms.)
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 |
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(a) 45 sq. cm |
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(b) 28p sq. cm |
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(c) 12p sq. cm |
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(d) 16p sq. cm |
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Section II : Analytical, Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation |
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Directions for questions 1 and 2: Each question is followed by two statements. Mark your answers as:
(a) if the question can be answered by using any one of the statements alone, but not by other
statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(c) if the question can be answered only by using both the statements together.
(d) if the question cannot be answered. |
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| 1. |
How many students are there in the class? |
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I. Half of the students in the class are girls. |
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II. The total number of girl students passing in an examination is same as the total number of boys
failing in the same and there are 60% students who have passed. |
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| 2. |
What is the radius of each sphere? |
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I. The distance between the centres of two such spheres is 12 cm. |
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II. The greatest number of such similar spheres which perfectly fit along a straight line within a cube of side
6 cm is 8. |
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Direction for questions 3 to 6: These questions are based on the following data given in the table.
Population (in million) of some states in India in the year 2008. |
State |
Population (m) |
Male (m) |
Rural (m) |
Density |
| Maharashtra |
79 |
40 |
48 |
257 |
| Uttar Pradesh |
139 |
74 |
111 |
473 |
| Bihar |
86 |
45 |
75 |
497 |
| West Bengal |
68 |
35 |
49 |
767 |
| AP |
66 |
33.7 |
48 |
242 |
| MP |
67 |
34 |
50 |
149 |
| Tamil Nadu |
55 |
28 |
36 |
429 |
| Karnataka |
45 |
23 |
31 |
235 |
| Rajasthan |
44 |
23 |
34 |
129 |
| Gujarat |
41 |
21 |
27 |
211 |
Density is number of persons per square kilometre. Use the data from questions if required. |
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| 3. |
If percentage of females remains same throughout the state, then how many females in millions do stay in urban region of Uttar Pradesh in year 2008? |
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(a) 13 m |
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(b) 14 m |
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(c) 14.5 m |
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(d) Indeterminable |
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| 4. |
What is the population of part of India other than states given in the table, if population of Maharashtra is 9.09 % of total population of India? |
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(a) 379 million |
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(b) 279 million |
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(c) 179 million |
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(d) Indeterminable |
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| 5. |
Which state among the five most populated states in India has the highest area? |
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(a) Uttar Pradesh |
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(b) Maharashtra |
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(c) West Bengal |
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(d) Indeterminable |
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| 6. |
Which state given in the table has the highest sex ratio?
Sex Ratio = No. of Females / No. of males. |
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(a) Tamilnadu |
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(b) Maharashtra |
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(c) Gujarat |
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(d) MP |
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Directions for questions 7 and 8: On the basis of the information given below, answer the questions that follow.
Ramesh, Sandeep and Ashish have the bikes Kawasaki, Pulsar, and Suzuki of the colours red, blue and green, but not necessarily in this respective order.
Ramesh is having a blue colour bike.
Sandeep does not have a pulsar.
Ashish has a Kawasaki.
Suzuki is not available in red model. |
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| 7. |
Which bike does Sandeep have? |
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(a) Pulsar |
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(b) Suzuki |
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(c) Kawasaki |
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(d) Indeterminable |
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| 8. |
What is the colour of the Pulsar? |
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(a) Red |
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(b) Blue |
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(c) Green |
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(d) Indeterminable |
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Directions for questions 9 and 10: These questions are based on the following route map.
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| 9. |
How many routes are there from A to B? |
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(a) 20 |
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(b) 21 |
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(c) 22 |
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(d) 23 |
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| 10. |
If a route from 2 to 3 is closed, what will be the total number of routes available from A to B? |
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(a) 13 |
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(b) 14 |
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(c) 15 |
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(d) 16 |
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Section III : English Usage and Reading Comprehension |
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Direction for questions 1 to 3:
Each of the questions given below has parts of a sentence labeled as (a) to (d). Mark that part as the answer which is incorrect grammatically, semantically or syntactically. |
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| 1. |
(a) The composer
(b) got a rousing welcome
(c) when he performed
(d) in Toronto recently. |
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| 2. |
(a) Although much remains to be done in this direction,
(b) the gradual increase in the number of schools
(c) clearly shows that
(d) the school master is aboard. |
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| 3. |
(a) The opposition to the retail revolution sweeping in the country
(b) has led to a correction in the retail management strategies of the major players,
(c) who have made massive investments
(d) into the world of opportunity domain and are feeling the pinch. |
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Direction for questions 4 and 5: Do as directed. |
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| 4. |
The category of people who are level headed are intelligent. Intelligent people have a good sense of humor. People who have a good sense of humor are unwilling to take risks. Those who are unwilling to take risks do not succeed in life.
What should be the correct conclusion for the given argument? |
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(a) Those who are level headed succeed in life.
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(b) Those who are not level headed fail in life.
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(c) Those who are level headed do not succeed in life.
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(d) Those who do not succeed in life are level headed. |
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| 5. |
Which of these options would make the correct conclusion in the above question invalid? |
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(a) Dull people also have a good sense of humor.
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(b) Some people who are unwilling to take risks do not have a good sense of humor.
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(c) Some people who have a good sense of humor are willing to take risks.
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(d) Some people who do not succeed in life are willing to take risks. |
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Direction for questions 6 and 7:
Read the short passage given and answer the questions based on it.
I think perhaps the biggest achievement is in the maintenance of democracy: India has done very much better than most countries in the post-colonial world in being able to maintain democracy. The threats that came, particularly at the time of the Emergency in the 1970s, were defeated by the Indian voters, and defeated decisively enough for that issue not to be raised again. The fact that the press has remained largely free, civil rights have stayed in place and the military has stayed in the barracks rather than ruling our lives are achievements of considerable distinction. I think the maintenance of democracy and the freedom of mind is certainly a very important achievement. |
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| 6. |
Which one of the following accurately projects the opinion of an imaginary speaker or author as the case may be of this passage? |
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(a) The emergency could not deter the spirit of Indian democracy as much as it was meant to.
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(b) The maintenance of democracy in India, despite some hindrances, is a remarkable achievement
when compared to most other countries.
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(c) In comparison to other countries India has managed to maintain the ideals of democracy to a large
extent in the post-colonial world.
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(d) The cherished ideal of democracy is maintained, inspite of hindrances, only by some countries
among which one is India. |
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| 7. |
Which one of these options weakens the arguments of the author in the passage? |
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(a) Some of the candidates who are voted to power turn out to be unscrupulous persons who just want
to exploit the people.
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(b) Suppression of the basic human rights of many people continue in many parts of the country even
today.
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(c) Voting is not conducted properly during elections in many parts of the country and there are cases
of
bogus voting.
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(d) A large number of people are illiterate and therefore they are not able to discern between the right
candidates and the wrong candidates at the time of voting. |
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Directions for questions 8 and 9:
The following questions consist of statements labeled A, B, C, D and E. When properly sequenced, they form a logical paragraph. Choose the best combination from the given options. |
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| 8. |
A. Plants are eaten by primary consumers-plant eating animals such as cattle.
B. They are in turn eaten by secondary consumers - meat eaters such as lions and man.
C. All food webs start with plants, the primary food producers which use sun's energy to convert
chemicals into food.
D. Scientists call these associations food chains or food webs.
E. All life on earth is bound together in complex associations between what is eaten and what eats it -
between the hunter and the hunted. |
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(a) ECDAB
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(b) EDCAB
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(c) CEDAB
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(d) BADCE |
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| 9. |
A. Independence is no doubt a matter of joy.
B. By independence, we have lost the excuse of blaming the British for anything going wrong.
C. There is great danger of things going wrong.
D. If hereafter things go wrong, we will have nobody to blame except ourselves.
E. But let us not forget that this independence has thrown on us great responsibilities. |
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(a) BEACD
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(b) DAECB
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(c) ECBAD
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(d) AEBDC |
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Direction for question 10:
The following question contains a paragraph. Four alternative summaries are given below the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. |
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| 10. |
Reactive people tend to be out of touch with their core values. Instead of running their lives based on unchanging core principles, they pick up temporary values from others around them. If no special opportunities come their way, they’ll stay at the same job year after year as long as it’s semi-satisfying. If most of their friends exercise, they probably will too; otherwise, they probably won’t. Their lives are largely out of their direct conscious control; they tend to only exert their human endowments when they absolutely must, such as if they get laid off unexpectedly. But when things are pretty good, life is mostly on autopilot. |
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(a) Reactive people tend to follow when they probably are coerced to.
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(b) Reactive people tend to be followers who mostly act when under duress.
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(c) Reactive people are followers who react when urged to.
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(d) Reactive people are followers who react when the autopilot ceases. |
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Section IV : General Awareness |
| 1. |
Which aerospace major Rolls Royce has tied up with the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, and Imperial College of the U.K to work together on a new research project to develop alloys for use in ‘greener’ aircraft engines? |
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(a) Indian |
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(b) Japanese |
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(c) British |
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(d) None of these |
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| 2. |
Who among the following has been appointed as the current chairman of the National Commission for Farmers? |
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(a) Ajit Singh |
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(b) K.C. Pant |
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(c) Sompal Singh Shastri |
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(d) Sharad Pawar |
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| 3. |
The Planning Commission has set out a road map to double the per capita income by the year |
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(a) 2020 |
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(b) 2025 |
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(c) 2018 |
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(d) 2012 |
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| 4. |
Which among the following is not a wholly owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India? |
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(a) National Housing Bank. |
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(b) National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development.
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(c) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India.
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(d) Exim Bank of India. |
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| 5. |
Mobile banking, an application through which Reliance India mobile subscribers can view their bank account balance, get mini-statements, fixed deposit details, request for cheque book, make stop-cheque requests and bill payments from their handsets any time and from anywhere. Reliance joined hands with which bank for mobile banking applications? |
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(a) SBI |
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(b) ICICI |
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(c) Citi Bank |
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(d) HDFC Bank |
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| 6. |
In the recent past, a study by which organization found that popular cold drinks including Coke and Pepsi contain 30 to 36 times more residual pesticides than permitted? |
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(a) Central Food Laboratory |
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(b) Central Food Technological Research Institute |
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(c) Centre for Science and Environment |
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(d) None of these |
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| 7. |
During a season, each football club plays the others twice, once at their home stadium and once at their opponents for a total of 38 games for each club, with a total of 380 games in each season. The club with the most points is crowned as champion. Which football tournament are we talking about? |
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(a) English Premier League |
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(b) Italian Serie A |
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(c) Spanish La Liga |
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(d) All of these |
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| 8. |
Which country has recently signed the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement with Mexico? |
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(a) India |
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(b) USA |
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(c) China |
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(d) Japan |
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| 9. |
Which statement gives wrong information about BIOTECHNOLOGY?
(1) The Indian biotech industry today comprises over 325 companies with top three companies contributing 27 per cent of the revenues.
(2) The biotech industry has been growing at over 30 per cent for the past three years.
(3) Investments in the Indian biotechnology sector crossed US$ 580 million in 2006-07 with Bangalore alone witnessing more than US$ 243.9 million outlay from companies like Jubilant, AstraZeneca, GE
Healthcare and Biocon.
(4) Of the 325 biotech companies in the country, nearly 40 per cent operate in the biopharma sector. |
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(a) Only 2 |
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(b) Only 1 |
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(c) Both 2 and 3 |
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(d) None of these |
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| 10. |
While calculating the development indices, a term called GDP at Purchasing Power Parity is always used. Which among the following facts is not true about Purchasing Power Parity index?
(1) Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a theory, which says that the long-run equilibrium exchange rate of
two currencies is the rate that equalizes the currencies' purchasing power.
(2) These special exchange rates are often used to compare the standards of living of two or more
countries.
(3) It works on the basis of the law of one price which says: “In an efficient market all identical goods
must have only one price.”
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true? |
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(a) Only (1) and (2) |
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(b) Only (2) and (3) |
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(c) All (1), (2) and (3) |
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(d) Only (1) |
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Answer Key |
Quantitative Ability |
1. (d) |
2. (d) |
3. (a) |
4. (b) |
5. (a) |
6. (a) |
7. (a) |
8. (d) |
9. (b) |
10. (d) |
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Analytical , Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation |
1. (d) |
2. (b) |
3. (a) |
4. (c) |
5. (d) |
6. (b) |
7. (b) |
8. (b) |
9. (c) |
10. (b) |
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English Usage and Reading Comprehension |
1. (d) |
2. (d) |
3. (a) |
4. (c) |
5. (c) |
6. (b) |
7. (b) |
8. (b) |
9. (d) |
10. (b) |
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General Awareness |
1. (c) |
2. (c) |
3. (a) |
4. (a) |
5. (c) |
6. (b) |
7. (b) |
8. (a) |
9. (b) |
10. (c) |
|
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CMAT Test Structure |
* The CMAT is an objective test. Each question has 4 options. Candidate should choose the most
appropriate response. |
| * The duration of the CMAT is 2 hours |
| * For every wrong answer, ¼th mark will be deducted. |
| The CMAT paper is divided into four sections. These four sections are: |
S. No. |
Section name |
Total questions |
Total Marks |
1. |
Quantitative Ability |
25 |
25 |
2. |
English Usage and Reading Comprehension |
25 |
25 |
3. |
Analytical , Logical Reasoning and Data Interpretation |
25 |
25 |
4. |
General Awareness |
25 |
25 |
Total |
100 |
100 |
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test structure
Duration: 2 hours
Verbal Ability: 25 Questions
